TL;DR The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse (c) is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides (a and b): (a^2 + b^2 = c^2).
Historical Context and Discovery
The Pythagorean theorem is a geometric principle discovered long before algebra was formalized. Ancient civilizations like the Egyptians used geometric constructions with compasses and straight edges to understand properties of shapes [2:3]. The theorem itself is based on the concept of area, where the areas of squares built on the triangle's legs are compared to the area of the square on the hypotenuse
[2:1]. This understanding predates algebraic methods, relying instead on visual proofs and rearrangement of shapes.
Visual Proofs and Intuition
One intuitive explanation involves arranging four identical right triangles within a larger square, creating smaller squares whose combined areas demonstrate the theorem [1:2]. These visual proofs show how the areas of the squares on the legs (a and b) equal the area of the square on the hypotenuse (c), reinforcing the equation (a^2 + b^2 = c^2). Such proofs can be found in various forms, including animations and diagrams
[1:6].
Why It Works for Right Triangles
The theorem specifically applies to right triangles due to its relation to the cosine rule, where the term involving the cosine of the angle disappears when the angle is 90 degrees [4:5]. In non-right triangles, additional terms account for the angle between the sides, but in right triangles, this simplifies, making the Pythagorean theorem applicable.
Applications and Exercises
The Pythagorean theorem is foundational in geometry and trigonometry, often taught early in mathematics education [3:3]. To make learning engaging, exercises such as the Theodorus spiral or puzzles from educational resources can be used to illustrate the theorem's applications and reinforce understanding
[5:1]. These activities help students visualize and apply the theorem in various contexts, enhancing both comprehension and interest.
Advanced Insights
For those seeking deeper understanding, the Pythagorean theorem can be viewed as defining distances in Euclidean space, which is fundamental to concepts in advanced geometry and physics [4:1]. Exploring different proofs, whether geometric, algebraic, or even using calculus, can provide varied perspectives on why the theorem holds true
[4:3].
This seems like it should be able to be understood intuitively. Why are the terms squared? Does it have something to do with two right triangles making a square type shape?
I actually made a little animation to explain this a while back: https://imgur.com/a/T0KEAHq
The way this explanation works is that you have 4 right-angled triangles with sides a b and c (the hypotenuse). You can arrange these triangles to create a square of sides (a+b). I'll call this the blue square from now on. Inside this blue square, the 4 hypotenuses create a black square of side length c (or area of c^2). If you move these triangles around a bit you can make 2 black squares of areas a^2 and b^2. The area of the blue square containing everything hasn't changed, and neither have the areas of the triangles. So since nothing has changed that means that the area of the square with area c^2 is equal to the areas of the other two squares of a^2 and b^2. Since these sides a, b, and c all came from the right angle triangle this is proof that side a of a right-angled triangle squared + side b of a right angle triangle squared is equal to side c, or the length hypotenuse of a triangle squared.
Sorry if this was too confusing. I'm not the best at explaining things and hopefully, the video will be able to compensate. If you have any questions please do feel free to reply with them. If anyone else can explain it in simpler terms than I have please reply to this with that explanation, thank you.
P.s. ignore that guy who said it's just intuition without explaining anything, they seem to be a bit of a jerk. Keep on asking any questions you don't understand and I'm sure the majority of people here will be happy to help
Oh my gosh I love this post! Thanks for the encouragement and that image is a great elegant explanation! Thank you so much :)
And here's another one https://www.desmos.com/calculator/h44v31urdw?lang=en
Thank you!
This likely not the type answer you were expecting but it may help to illustrate the distinction of the right triangle and the Pythagorean Theorem from non-right triangles and the Law of Cosines.
For any triangle ABC where c is the long leg, an exponent n exists that will satisfy a^n + b^n = c^n. Exponent n is not constrained to only integers.
Solving n for a given triangle and plotting it against angle C, a curve as an expression of a:b is realized. By representing numerous a:b ratios in this manner, their intersection at n of 2 and C of 90° (or pi/2) can be visualized.
I have created an animation that hopefully offers some clarity. Simply manipulate slider "a" and point "P". https://www.geogebra.org/m/zmj6xcxr
Additional details regarding this topic can be found here: https://thecognitivecondition.com/?p=210
Hope this helps you in some way.
I’ve seen several proofs for the Pythagorean theorem, but they all involved the use of algebra, a tool that wasn’t invented until centuries later. How was such a concept discovered without algebra?
There’s a few visual proofs I’ve seen, but how does one express the meaning of such without algebra?
Pythagorean got his knowledge from the Egyptian Priest- African.
If I'm not mistaken they used constructions using compuses and straight edges. There are some interesting visual proofs for the pythagorean theorem in that sense.
Summing squares is arithmetic.
Care to elaborate further?
Multiplying a number by itself is arithmetic. So is addition.
Very simply, they did use what we would call algebra. "They" being the ancient Egyptians were the first to find the value of Pi, creating trigonometry geometry at least a thousand years before Euclid and Pythagoras were even born.
The Pythagorean theorem is a geometric theorem, not an algebraic one. You can erect squares on the sides of a triangle. If the triangle is a right triangle, then the squares erected over the kathetes together have the same area as the one erected over the hypothenuse. You can prove this using the basic properties of areas: two areas are the same if you can cut one of them into pieces and rearrange the pieces to get the other area. Most proofs do exactly that.
I dont know what he means by "C is the vertex position". In the pythagorean theorem, its the length of the right triangle's side that is opposite the 90 degree angle, which I think is definitely different from a position which has no length. Also, all that other solving stuff could be more easily summarized as "you can solve for any side length when the two other side lengths are known". Sorry for verysmarting, I'll be on my way to sniff my own farts
I think he's thinking of how you use the theorem in trigonometry, where the hypotenuse connects to the vertex of a circle, and the other two sides are called the opposite and adjacent. For example, the sine of an angle is the opposite over the hypotenuse.
Not 100% sure about this, but isn't the Pythagorean Theorem one of the first things you learn in math after plus, minus, divide and multiply? If that's the case, that makes it pretty basic knowledge.
you definitely learn it in elementary school but probably not the same year as any of those things. Probably after the basic operations become easy and maybe the same year you learn exponentials
Jesus christ, they're completely wrong on half of this. C is a side length, not a vertex, and you can't solve for anything with only one side length. This smells like a seventh grader who thinks they're clever
If it's an isosceles right triangle then you only need one side length.
Yes, but this is about the Pythagorean Theorem, which requires a right triangle
If it's an isosceles right triangle then you automatically have more information than just one side.
No, you can solve with only one side... It's just not the Pythagorean theorem then
Only if you have other information about the triangle. If you only have information about side lengths, then it's impossible to solve with just one
Ya this looks inaccurate to me.
you can only solve it 3 ways (you need to know 2 of the 3 variables). You can figure out the lengths other ways but you need trigonometry and angles to do it.
A vertex is usually a point not a line, but tbh i could have just forgot if vertex position is a thing. i majored in math but i don't remember everything.
The theorem only works on right triangles and they somehow missed that.
c is always the longest side length
a and b are interchangeable but you probably labeled them left to right out of habit so that parts accurate kind of, just written strangely.
Such a genius should know sides are marked with lowercase letters
I know the proof with the equal area squares. But, I still don’t get why it works. I feel like the proof is more like an observation, and there must be a more fundamental explanation. Like what is the underlying reason for the squares made from the legs to have the same area as the square from the hypothenuse?
For the same reason, I also don’t understand why it only works for right angle triangles. If someone could explain it to me, I’d very much appreciate.
Which proof did you look at? For me the simplest to understand is the one where you draw a square with a square inside it, exch corner of the inner square is on the perimeter of the outer square. Inner square is side c, outer square is side a + b.
From there it's just algebra to equate the area of the big square with its constituents, the inner square and the 4 right angled triangles. Probably best as an image, I'm sure there's one online.
What do you think I should look up? I’m not really understanding what you mean and I’m not sure how to find it
which proof did you look at though
There’s like a billion different proofs of the Pythagorean theorem. There’s geometric, algebraic, trigonometric, even using calculus. Pick your favorite.
The reason it only works for right angled triangles is because it’s a version of the Cosine rule where the -2ab*cos(C) term disappears because C is 90 and cos(90) is 0. Getting a satisfying proof for that with a tangible explanation would probably be much more difficult, and it’s not my area of expertise anyway.
Cool. That's the long way if you just want to prove the Pythagorean Theorem (for homework or whatever), but it gets you the whole Law of Cosines and not just one special case.
I don't have an answer, but I have the same question as you OP. It's a great question to get into first principle thinking:
https://yourbrainchild.wordpress.com/2023/12/06/modeling-first-principle-thinking/
Wow. That’s the most relatable thing I’ve ever read. I feel much less alone now. Thanks :)
The more fundamental explanation is actually really cool.
It turns out that the pythagorean theorem defines the distance between two points. That is, when you get more advanced, it's not a theorem but an assumption. If you change that assumption you get different geometry that still works. For example, geometry on a sphere where triangle angles add up to more than 180 degrees and the shortest path between two points is a curve (used in navigation all the time).
I want to help my son preparing for his upcoming math test on the topic of Pythagoras and I’d like to make it entertaining. We’ll start with the Theodorus spiral but not sure where to go from there. Hit me with your most fun problems around the Pythagoras theorem. Thanks!
Have you tried these? Depending on his age, but also on how confident he is on the basics:
https://nrich.maths.org/pythagoras-theorem-and-trigonometry-short-problems
https://nrich.maths.org/pythagoras-theorem-and-trigonometry-age-11-16
These are great, thanks!
Pythagoras' theorem "to the nearest 5 decimal places"? What the hell does that even mean? Pythagoras' theorem is a^2 + b^2 = c^2
He clearly thought it was pi he was talking about when he started listing 3.14 as the digits.
Right? I was like Py-thagoras also made pi ??? ?_? And then I realized he was just dumb haha
In America it is referred to and taught as the pytagorean theorem. Is it referred to as pythagoras' theorem elsewhere?
So, I actually went to look this up, because I don't really know who Pythagoras was, and I was going to argue that "Pythagoras' Theorem" makes more sense because he was a person, not a group of people, but then I learned that he started a philosophical/religious movement called Pythagoreanism. I guess we could break this down even further and somehow equate schools that teach "Pythagorean Theorem" with placing more importance on the Dogma than the person who started it. But I don't know, Wikipedia says Pythagorean Theorem is also sometimes referred to as Pythagoras' Theorem, but I can't find anywhere that explains where or why the two different forms are used.
In the UK we say “Pythagoras’ theorem” but it’s more common to say “use Pythagoras” without the theorem bit added as that’s implied
Definitely not.
If you watched the entire video you would know, but that's a waste of time so it makes sense to go to the comments. He was talking about the number π.
the square of the hypotenuse of a right triangle is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides. Its got nothing to do with PI. He is a pompous idiot
yup, typical piers.
He wins the prize
People who ask these types of questions don’t understand it enough to use it in the real world.
The problem is that most schools doesn't give practical examples on where and how Pythagorean theorem is actually used, this is why most of us see this as useless
A lot of math textbooks do attempt to include "real world" problems, but they are either treated by the teacher as "extension" questions, or are difficult to visualise. I remember tutoring at a school where I was asked the exact question OP posed - I gave plenty of building, woodworking, other hands on examples that people may end up coming across... I clearly remember the next thing said was "he has a point!"
What was incredibly helpful at my school was going out and performing a real world experiment to calculate the height of a tree using a trundle wheel and a clinometer (ok, this is trigonometry rather than Pythagoras, but you get the idea). Fairly old school instruments, but you got a good feel for how the math works.
Sure they do. Every other diagram is someone looking up at a tree or checking to see if their sailboat will fit under a bridge.
It's kids saying they'll never have a boat or be a cabinet maker looking for excuses that make teachers give up on specific examples.
The Pythagoean theorem is probably one of the most equations in all of math, science, engineering, data analysis, etc. It essentially tells you how to measure distance in a multidimensional space. Any time you do anything with two or more variables, this is relevant.
And not just physical distance but abstract distance too.
A good example, in probability and statistics, variance between 2 variables is the law of cosine and of course, when covariance is 0, you have pythagorean theorem.
Its an equation....not sure if it is one of the "most equations" though :-)
Bro! Do you even equation?
Could it be more equation?
Indeed. To work out the distance between map co-ordinates.
I'm an engineer, so quite often.
Used in machining, looking at 3D objects usually a part that’s going to be turned(machine operation). It helps when looking at concentricity of multiple diameters along the same center line.
I'm not looking for any proof or explanation of the theorem. I want to understand the essence of the relationship between the equality a²+b²=c² and distance in the Euclidean space. I don't grasp the reason why the exponent must be 2, not any other arbitrary number. In other words, how do you intuitively understand the Pythagorean theorem ?
I understand it as a statement about area. A right triangle is a plane figure, and one of the fundamental quantities that help you understand figures in the plane is area.
Finding the length of the hypotenuse of a right triangle is hard. Finding the area of the square on the hypotenuse is almost trivial, if you know how.
Consider this square (and apologies for the roughness). Can you find its area? You could try breaking it up into four triangles and a small square. Or you could think of it as a big square minus four triangles. There's more than one way to do this. Now, once you know its area, what's its sidelength?
There's also an avenue where you can think of it as being a consequence of how a right triangle is made up of two similar copies of itself. What you want to do is rotate it so that the hypotenuse is horizontal, and drop a vertical altitude. (Or, the same picture but thought of differently: it's about how length doesn't change under rotation. So you can rotate it so that the hypotenuse you're measuring is horizontal and then drop in a new coordinate system.)
You can have a concept of “area” (or properly, ratios of planar areas) without needing any metric (i.e. without any concepts of perpendicularity, angle measure, squares, circles, rotation, congruence or similarity of rotated figures, generic distance). Any affine plane has (ratios of) areas.
Finding a square on the side of a triangle is dependent on having a notion of perpendicularity, which is equivalent to having a definition of a dot product.
Right, yup. Lengths, perpendicularity, and dot products are essentially three sides of the same three-sided coin. If you have one, you have the other two. So yeah, you definitely need the ability to construct squares, not just the ability to look at their area.
So how about this explanation, to make that story more clear. How can we use perpendicularity to say something about length? If you think for a while, you might come up with the following: two vectors u and v have the same length iff u+v and u−v are perpendicular. Geometrically, this is saying that a parallelogram is a rhombus iff its diagonals are perpendicular to each other. We can use this to our advantage.
The vector (x,y) is the same length as (r,0) for some r. Our task is to find r. First, we'll want a notational simplification.
On the plane, it's well known that the vectors (a,b) and (A,B) are perpendicular iff:
b/a = −A/B
(This is essentially the "negative reciprocal" you learn in grade school about the slopes of perpendicular lines. The slope of the line from (0,0) to (a,b) is b/a, the slope of the line from (0,0) to (A,B) is B/A, and if they're perpendicular then they're negative reciprocals of each other.)
By doing cross-multiplication, we can also write this in this more symmetric way:
Aa + Bb = 0
This makes us think that this Aa+Bb quantity might be useful. So, if u=(a,b) and v=(A,B), define:
u·v = Aa + Bb
and call it the "dot product" of the vectors u and v.
Now, there are some properties of this dot product. First of all, it satisfies the distributive property, so:
(u+v)·w = u·w + v·w
u·(v+w) = u·v + u·w
Secondly, we have:
u·v = v·u
And thirdly, if u and v are perpendicular, than:
u·v = 0
So, I said that u and v have the same length iff u+v and u−v are perpendicular. Thus:
(u+v)·(u−v) = 0
u·u − u·v + v·u − v·v = 0
u·u − v·v = 0
u·u = v·v
So u and v have the same length iff u·u and v·v are equal. (Notice the similarity to the "difference of two squares" formula from factoring.)
Thus, (x,y) has the same length as (r,0) iff
(x,y)·(x,y) = (r,0)·(r,0)
or,
x^2 + y^2 = r^2
and this is the Pythagorean formula.
As a bonus, we get that u·u is the square of the length of u. Or, using |u| to denote the length of u, we have:
u·u = |u|^2
By the way, here's some extra stuff. What can we say about |u+v|? Well,
|u+v|^2 = (u+v)·(u+v) = u·u + u·v + v·u + v·v
|u+v|^2 = |u|^2 + 2u·v + |v|^2
So this means, if we can find lengths, then we can find dot products, by solving for u·v in that equation. This also means that, if we rotate u and v by some angle, then u·v doesn't change, because the other terms of that equation (|u+v|, |u|, and |v|) are all lengths, so they don't change when you rotate u and v by the same amount.
Doing the same to u−v yields:
|u−v|^2 = |u|^2 − 2u·v + |v|^2
and adding them together gives us:
|u+v|^2 + |u−v|^2 = 2|u|^2 + 2|v|^2
Geometrically, this says that the sum of the squares of the diagonals of a parallelogram equals the sum of the squares of the four sides. So messing around with this "dot product" gave us this geometric fact that we didn't necessarily know before.
I think I've got something that can work. Like, try and ask why, for a vector x, the sqrt(x dot x) gives the length of x. It's obvious when x is on an axis. But if you show that the quantity "x dot x" is invariant under rotations then it would show this calculation should work for any x. This would lead to a proof of the Pythagorean theorem whose intuition boils down to "x dot x is invariant under rotations".
>why does the L² norm coincides with our notion of distance
Because of the Pythagorean Theorem, and because we live in flat space where the Pythagorean Theorem applies.
If you take two points in space, and draw the line segment between them - then drop lines parallel to the coordinate axes - you get a right triangle. Therefore the length of the hypotenuse is given by the Pythagorean Theorem, which is easily proven to use squares, not other powers.
For what it's worth, while there are many L^p metrics, the L^2 metric really is special: it's the only one induced by an inner product.
In order to discuss right triangles, you need a notion of angle. An angle is a number associated to two intersecting lines or vectors. This function is a bilinear form. The only exponent p for which the p-norm comes from a bilinear form is p=2. p=2 norm geometry is the only geometry with angles.
> In order to discuss right triangles, you need a notion of angle. An angle is a number associated to two intersecting lines or vectors.
By “angle” do you mean “angle measure”? If so, then no you do not need angle measure to discuss right triangles. For example we can have a right triangle in a plane where the coordinates are elements of a finite field, a context where angle measure cannot be defined.
Otherwise, an “angle” is not a scalar number, but some relationship between orientations or vectors.
does this somehow have to do also with p=2 is its own conjugate
Or to put it another (probably confusing) way: 2 = 1 + 1; one for each line making the angle (or vector input to the bilinear form) :P
I remember doing an exercise in Axler's that asked you to prove that there is an inner product on R^2 such that the norm of (x,y) is (x^p + y^p )^(1/p) for p > 0 if and only if p = 2. So essentially, the 2 can be tracked to arising from the definition of an inner product and its associated norm, as has already been mentioned in this thread.
The Intuition is by proving it, especially with the constructions where you make squares, and move the area around.
As for "why not other powers", you can define distance using other powers, and these are called L^(p) norms, where p is the associated power. It just happens to be that, in our world, L^(2) is the observed norm.
One "reason" why that occurs is that, if you consider circles under other L^(p) norms, they will look, "not round" when drawn. Only L^(2) makes "round" circles
"Looking not round" is not well defined, because theoretically, there could be a world where L^(3) was the observed norm, and L^(3) circles would look round for people in that world.
There are some things which make L^(2) special -- for example, if you consider heat transfer equation on a square grid (discrete space, continouous time), it will still distribute heat in L^(2) circles, not L^(1) as one could expect from the structure of the grid), and rotations do not work well in other L^(p) norms, although I am not sure where exactly cdoes this come from. Probably rotations are related to inner products, and heat transfer is related to squares appearing in the definition of the Gaussian distribution, which appears in the solution of that equation.
Don't mistake "theorem" with "theory", they are not the same, and don't mistake either for being measly.
Every time I hear "just a theory" I cringe.
A theorem, in math, is a statement that has been proved. Laws tend to be more so just observations, and in this sense a law is the lesser of the two, although the term doesn't seem to be used super consistently in math. For example, I'd classify the power law as a theorem by these definitions, but I'm also not a mathematician so I may be missing something.
But that's just a theory, a math theory! Tune in next week a new one, thanks for watching.
Correct, the definition of 'theorem' provided by the Oxford dictionary is:
a general proposition not self-evident but proved by a chain of reasoning; a truth established by means of accepted truths.
The Pythagorean theorem can be proved in numerous ways, the simplest being a simple rearrangement of right triangles with sides a, b, and c. If you accept that the square of side length a+b doesn't change during the animation, then the areas a^2 and b^2 must add up to c^2.
To just extend on the answers: ultimately, the naming of a certain result/expected result comes down to history, not nomenclature. Mathematics has words such as theorem, lemma, proposition, corollary, tautology, triviality, rule, law, formula, (in)equality for things that are actually proven, and problem, conjecture, hypothesis, postulate, axiom for ones that are not or cannot. There are also relevant differences between those, roughly:
But let me demonstrate how inconsistent this turns out to be:
>Bertrand's Postulate
Proven by Chebyshev 7 years after Bertrand postulated it. Most people still call it "Betrand's Postulate" but others call it "Bertrand–Chebyshev theorem" or "Chebyshev's theorem".
Wait, the one about standard deviations for any set of numbers? In all my stats textbooks I don’t think I ever heard Bertrand’s name.
Edit: Huh. Different theorem. Maybe it’s called Bertrand’s Postulate because “Chebyshev’s Theorem” was already taken by the standard deviation one.
Best answer I have found:
Theorems are results proven from axioms, more specifically those of mathematical logic and the systems in question. Laws usually refer to axioms themselves, but can also refer to well-established and common formulas such as the law of sines and the law of cosines, which really are theorems.
In a particular context, propositions are the more trivial theorems, lemmas are intermediate results, while corollaries are results deduced easily from others. However, lemmas and corollaries may be major results on their own.
Note that a system may be given axioms in more ways than one. For example, we can use the least upper bound axiom to define the real numbers, or we can consider this axiom as a theorem if we were to construct the reals from the rationals using Dedekind cuts and prove it instead. The difference here lies in which axioms we choose to start with.
When you stated, “Given its assumptions,” it got me thinking. Can’t assumptions provide wide latitude in making theorems? For example, would the proposition that 2+2=5 always be true if we assume that everything that u/TedMerTed states is true.
Good luck getting people to accept that axiom. Generally axioms (in math) are the absolute building blocks, rules by which if not accepted we cannot use math to describe observable reality. If an axiom were to lead to a conclusion that did not appear to lead to math being a useful tool to describe observable reality that axiom would be thrown out.
You could build all manner of different systems with different axioms, but the ones we use now seem highly effective at forming a very useful tool to observe, document, and in some cases predict, things about reality.
In math, anything that can be proved or derived in some framework, either directly from the axioms or postulates of that framework or in combination with other theorems, is a theorem.
This is in stark contrast to how the word theorem and theory are used in, say, a scientific sense, which dies not note a form of necessary truth (where it does in math) or in a lay sense which denotes a hunch or speculation.
A law typically refers to any concise and fundamental mathematical truth. Laws may or may not be theorems themselves, and are quite often axioms or postulates.
> In maths, a "theory" is something that looks like it might be true, but hasn't been proven true in all possible cases.
No, that's a hypothesis.
A mathematical theory is just the second thing you described.
dont feel pedantic when this is genuinely used as an argument against evolution
It would be better as a proof if you enforced the angle between the green bricks as 90°.
It is enforced! The sides measure exactly 3 and 4 studs, so Mathematically it is a square rectangle and that angle is 90!
Yes, it is a right angle in this case.
But given you are using hinges, any three sides (as long as the sum of the shorter sides is greater than the long one will also join up.
But by enforcing the angle between the two shorter sides as 90° you can establish that it is actually a right angle triangle, which is one of the requirements for a Pythagorean triangle.
If you are using it to "prove" the Pythagorean theorem, you can't use the Pythagorean theorem to enforce a right angle.
And even then it’s not a proof of pythagorean theorem. It only proofs that a 3,4,5 triangle has a right angle.
I ran into this phenomenon recently building the grand piano. There’s a right triangle you build to brace the pedals, and the hypotenuse is 11 studs long. This blew my mind (there’s no small Pythagorean triple with hypotenuse divisible by 11), until my wife pointed out that the triangle itself has vertices in the center of the technic pins, and hence is only ten studs wide. So the triangle in the piano is 3-4-5 after all.
I’m no math whiz..lol..but I did once teach my daughter all about how manual transmissions work using one of the really big Technic cars with a visible transmission and engine🙂
being able to count the number of studs on each side really adds to the illustration. nice!
You can count studs for size and area!
The 5x5 is also constructed with a 4x4 and three 3x1. The 5x5 could be made with the same colors as the 4x4 and 3x3 squares to further the illustration.
And perimeter
Lego Batman would be proud
What is the Pythagorean theorem
Key Considerations of the Pythagorean Theorem
Definition: The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle) is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the other two sides.
[ a^2 + b^2 = c^2 ]
Where:
Applications: This theorem is widely used in various fields such as architecture, construction, navigation, and computer graphics to calculate distances and angles.
Visual Representation: A right triangle can be visually represented, with the two shorter sides forming the right angle and the hypotenuse being the longest side.
Extensions: The theorem can be extended to three dimensions using the distance formula, which is useful in geometry and physics.
Takeaway: The Pythagorean theorem is a fundamental principle in mathematics that helps in solving problems involving right triangles. It's essential for anyone studying geometry or related fields.
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